I recently posted a video answering a challenge: When did you choose your heterosexuality? Someone asked a follow-up question, and I thought I’d share my response.
Here’s the question:
I listened to Alan's challenge about not choosing to be heterosexual. What my question is. Romans 1 says that people who reject God will burn in their lust for the same sex. I don't understand Alan's response. He said that same sex attraction comes from early experiences from age 1 to 5. Children at that age can't reject God because they haven't reached the age of accountability.
So my question is, does same sex attraction come from a bad experience in early childhood, or does it come as punishment for rejecting God as Paul says in Romans?
Below was my response:
Your question is a good one. I agree with you that my answer sounds confusing in light of Romans 1. That’s my fault. Let me clarify.
In my attempt to explain the causes of same-sex attraction, I did not intend to negate the impact of sin in the world or our sin nature. The world is fallen, we are sinful, and that contributes to a huge amount of the sin we commit. Furthermore, Romans 1 tells us that homosexuality is evidence of man’s deep-seated rebellion against God and how he ordered creation (specifically humans) to function.
Now, I wouldn’t say as you have that “people who reject God will burn in their lust for the same sex,” since not every person who rejects God is a homosexual. Rather, sexual desire for the same sex is one possible symptom of rebellion towards God. But you are otherwise correct about the importance of Romans 1 in our understanding of homosexual activity that Paul observed.
Let me add an additional qualification to the video. I often answer the question of what causes same-sex attraction from both a biblical (special revelation) and scientific (general revelation) perspective. Usually, in a teaching environment, I have more time to address the challenge, but these videos are intended to be under five minutes. That’s why I left out the biblical answer. Plus, I was answering the question with the non-Christian skeptic in mind. Since such a person would not consider biblical information as authoritative, I only gave an answer based on secular research.
The secular explanation that I offered, by the way, is only one known pathway towards same-sex attraction. I believe it’s the most common, but it’s certainly not the only one. If you want more detail about developmental pathway in childhood that can contribute to same-sex attraction, I encourage you to check out my short book The Ambassador’s Guide to Understanding Homosexuality that explains it. Or, for an abridged (and free) explanation, check out my article “Homosexuality: Nature or Nurture” (that I co-wrote with Greg Koukl) discussing one cause of same-sex attraction.
Anyway, thanks for asking your question and allowing me to clarify and explain myself.
No scientific data regarding homosexuality? Wrong
"If all who have a desire for the same sex do so 'naturally,' then to whom does this verse apply? Pagans for one, straight men who rape other men in prison, rapists since rape is about power, not pleasure
The argument does not self destruct because constitutional homosexuality was foreign to Paul. It actually increases it's validity. The 'orgy' of 'unnatural' sex acts is what is being condemned, not concentual loving monogamous same-sex relationships.
BECAUSE homosexuality was not a known concept, he doesn't have to clarify whether he's speaking of constitutional homosexuality.
Then on to 'natural' "Homosexuals do not abandon natural desires; they abandon natural functions" There are bibles that do not have the word 'function' in the scripture. You cannot make a valid argument based on the word function in relation to the word natural. Furthermore, natural desires do NOT go with natural functions in homosexual people. Same-sex attraction is the natural desire. So you may argue that homosexuality is unnatural, but you cannot make this argument based on Romans 1.
Further note, Matthew 19: 4-5 is about divorce.
Please include the surrounding verses, and the context in which verses are given. You may be unecessarily condemning children of God.
The greatest commandment is love of God; the second is to love your neighbor. Matthew 22
Posted by: A Drake Mason | May 27, 2015 at 03:46 PM
Thanks for your comment, A Drake Mason. I recommend Kevin DeYoung's excellent, short book What Does the Bible Really Teach about Homosexuality for responses to all the points you've raised here.
As for two of the points—"homosexuality was not a known concept" and the implication that loving your neighbor means affirming people's sexual behavior—I'll cover those over the next couple of days on the blog. One post I had already written (a happy coincidence!), but the second I'll write in response to your comment. Thanks for posting.
Posted by: Amy | May 27, 2015 at 04:35 PM
Drake, Romans 1 is all about consensual, adult homosexual relationships: v.27 "..the men gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men...."
I also challenge your premise that 'homosexualty' was not a known concept. It was quite prevalent in Roman society and in the ancient world.
Posted by: doug | May 29, 2015 at 07:02 AM
Where in Scripture can you point out homosexual activity of ANY kind is treated as a neutral or a positive practice?
Posted by: doug | May 29, 2015 at 07:04 AM